chajadan Posted May 21, 2013 at 10:35 AM Report Posted May 21, 2013 at 10:35 AM Hello, When 3rd tone is followed by neutral, I am taught to do a half 3rd tone, followed by a high neutral tone, but sometimes I hear it pronounced like a 2nd tone followed by a a half 3rd. Certain words seem to prefer one over the other, but I found a case where I am given both: http://www.forvo.com...com/word/喜欢/#zh Are there any general rules about which form is encountered where or when? Is this phenomenon something you are familiar with, or are you used to 3rd+neutral sounding the same in all instances? I ask because I currently feel that I would always have to consult a native, or special dictionary like forvo, in order to know which to choose. Is one or both always considered accurate? My guess is that either would be understood, but I'm looking for clarification into this whole point. Thanks! --charlie Quote
Botterli Posted May 21, 2013 at 11:18 AM Report Posted May 21, 2013 at 11:18 AM Hi, tonal wise both sound the same to me, a half 3rd and a high neutral. I haven't heard about any such cases, and I haven't noticed anything like that, but then I've only been studying for less than a year. -Geir Quote
陳德聰 Posted May 23, 2013 at 10:20 AM Report Posted May 23, 2013 at 10:20 AM Pretty sure we just talked about this like a few weeks ago. Quote
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