How to write in pinyin

[julio]

Hi. I would like to know how to write in pinyin "He gives it to John" omitting the object you are talking about and instead using the pronoun "it".

Thank you

[pon00050]

Tā bǎ tā gěile yuēhàn

[julio]

Thank you. PO

[julio]

I have found out that when you add "le" to the verb "gěi" you indicate past tense. So Tā bǎ tā gěile yuēhàn"  it means "I gave it to John".

As I was asking for "He gives it to John" (present tense, I think it is most probably "Tā bǎ tā gěi yuēhàn". If someone in this forum can confirm that I will appreciate. Thankyou

 

[Tomsima]

not necessarily, 了 le can also indicate a change in the situation (an object changing hands by the process of giving in this case). 給 gei feels a little unnatural on its own, so a 了 le can also be added to improve the rhythm of the sentence. There are other verbs that can do this without needing to use 了 le, eg 交給 jiaogei, 換給 huangei, but these require more context to know exactly what type of giving is taking place in order to be used correctly.

[889]

In addition, while it is ubiquitous in English, the vaguely equivalent 它 is not in Chinese. Not to say using it is technically wrong, but there's a strong preference to avoid it in natural speech. Often the object can be dispensed with altogether:

 

那是我的气球! 给我!

 

[anonymoose]

In my opinion as a non-native speaker, saying gěile does convey the meaning of the past tense, and "He gives it to John" should be Tā bǎ tā gěi Yuēhàn. I think the reason why it sounds strange is simply because, in both English and Chinese, it is unlikely anyone would ever say this sentence in isolation. If we add some additional information, such as "He gives it to John every night", then the sentence would be Tā měi tiān wǎnshàng dōu bǎ tā gěi Yuēhàn, which I think sounds fine, whereas adding the le would clearly be odd.

[Leslie Frank]

Here's my 2¢--like @anonymoose said earlier, the sentence isn't said in isolation, so usually, the "it" would be understood as opposed to spoken or written out, so suppose you were talking about a favorite book that isn't given to Mary because the book owner likes John better. So here's the scenario that leads up to your line:

 

This is his favorite book.

He doesn't give it to Mary.

He gives it to John.

 

Zhè shì tā zuì xǐhuān de shū.

Tā bù gěi Mǎlì.

Tā gěi Yuēhàn.

[julio]

I think that makes all the sense the example 

7 hours ago, Leslie Frank said:

Zhè shì tā zuì xǐhuān de shū.

Tā bù gěi Mǎlì.

Tā gěi Yuēhàn.

and probably in that context for a native Chinese speaker the sentence Tā gěi Yuēhàn it means He gives it to john.

In English we are forced to put the it  in He gives it to john because it is replacing the word book. We can not say He gives to John, we are forced grammatically and it sounds correct to say He gives it to John.

And about the le, It seems to make more sense its use for the past tense, so Tā gěile Yuēhàn would be He gave it to John